Study Guide · ISSAP

ISSAP Cheat Sheet

391 entries · 11 chapters · 4 domains

Governance, Risk, and Compliance (GRC)

Identify Security Requirements

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Cheat sheet

Sharp facts the exam loves — scan these before test day.

Binding authority determines whether guidance is mandatory

A law, regulation, directive, or contract creates an obligation through its governing authority, while a framework or guideline is voluntary unless that authority incorporates it. The architect must establish applicability before treating published guidance as a compliance mandate.

Trap Treat every cited framework as independently mandatory

4 questions test this
ISO/IEC 27001 defines requirements for an information security management system

ISO/IEC 27001 specifies requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining, and continually improving an ISMS using a risk management process. It is the certifiable management-system standard, not merely a catalog of technical safeguards.

Trap Use ISO/IEC 27002 as the certifiable requirements standard

4 questions test this
The NIST Cybersecurity Framework states outcomes without prescribing implementations

CSF 2.0 supplies a technology-neutral taxonomy of cybersecurity outcomes and points to informative resources for practices and controls. An architect tailors those outcomes to mission, risk appetite, and sector rather than treating the Core as a fixed control baseline.

Trap Implement every CSF outcome through a prescribed NIST technology

4 questions test this
A control catalog must be tailored to the system's requirements and risk

NIST SP 800-53 provides flexible security and privacy controls that address requirements from missions, laws, policies, standards, and guidelines. Selecting the entire catalog without scoping, tailoring, and allocating controls does not produce a risk-based architecture.

Trap Adopt the complete control catalog unchanged

9 questions test this
Framework crosswalks indicate relationships rather than control equivalence

Mappings between standards provide a general indication of coverage, but relationships may be subjective and are not necessarily one-to-one. Compliance must therefore be validated against the source requirement and its scope instead of inferred from a crosswalk alone.

Trap Accept a mapped control as conclusive proof of compliance

4 questions test this
Requirement applicability follows organizational and operating context

The architect identifies relevant laws, regulations, contractual duties, and internal policies by examining mission, sector, jurisdictions, stakeholders, data processing, and services. A control cannot be justified as compliant until the requirement's subject, scope, and triggering conditions apply.

5 questions test this

Security architects should obtain authoritative interpretations of laws and regulatory conflicts from qualified legal and privacy stakeholders. Their architectural role is to convert those interpretations into verifiable security and privacy requirements, not to make unsupported legal determinations.

Trap Let the architect independently resolve ambiguous law

3 questions test this
Organizational policy may impose controls beyond external minimums

Applicable requirements include internal policies and mission needs as well as external mandates. Meeting a regulatory minimum does not satisfy a stricter organizational baseline unless the authorized policy owner approves an exception or changes the policy.

Trap Stop control selection at the least demanding regulation

4 questions test this
Each compliance requirement needs traceability to controls and evidence

A defensible architecture maps each source obligation to implemented or inherited controls, responsible owners, assessment methods, and retained evidence. This traceability exposes coverage gaps and lets an assessor follow a requirement from authority to operating proof.

6 questions test this
Compliance scope boundaries must include dependencies that affect protected processing

The architecture defines systems, data flows, facilities, people, external services, and interconnections that can affect the regulated service or information. Arbitrarily excluding a connected dependency can invalidate both control design and compliance evidence.

Trap Limit scope to hosts that directly store regulated records

5 questions test this
GDPR reach can extend beyond an organization's location

An organization need not be established in the EU for GDPR obligations to apply when its processing relates to offering goods or services to people in the EU or monitoring their behavior in the EU. Physical establishment alone is therefore not a sufficient test of applicability.

3 questions test this
Outsourcing a service does not outsource the acquirer's accountability

An organization remains responsible for managing risks and obligations attached to its mission and information when a supplier performs the work. The architecture must allocate shared controls and evidence duties explicitly rather than assuming the provider's program satisfies the acquirer automatically.

Trap Treat supplier certification as a transfer of accountability

2 questions test this
Supply chain requirements must flow down to relevant subcontractors

Controls implemented across the system life cycle often depend on prime contractors and their sub-tier suppliers. Contracts must identify which security, privacy, assurance, and reporting requirements flow down so that outsourcing depth does not break the control chain.

6 questions test this
Supplier assurance begins before selection and continues through the relationship

C-SCRM uses risk-based due diligence and assessment before selection or acceptance, followed by reviews and monitoring during performance. A one-time procurement questionnaire cannot address later ownership, development, vulnerability, or service changes.

Trap Perform supplier assessment only after contract award

6 questions test this
Third-party agreements must define security notification duties

Notification agreements establish which incidents, vulnerabilities, component changes, or supply disruptions a supplier reports, to whom, and within what required timeframe. Without these terms, the customer cannot reliably meet its own response and reporting obligations.

5 questions test this
Provenance and component transparency support supply chain trust decisions

Provenance records help track origin, ownership, custody, and changes so components can be validated as genuine and unaltered. An SBOM adds software-component visibility for vulnerability and dependency analysis, but does not by itself prove that those components are secure.

Trap Treat an SBOM as a product security certification

6 questions test this
Privacy requirements apply across the complete data-processing lifecycle

Data processing includes collection, generation, use, transformation, logging, retention, disclosure, sharing, transmission, and disposal. Privacy architecture must therefore follow data and derived records through every lifecycle action rather than protect only stored databases.

4 questions test this
Personal data collection and retention must be limited to a defined purpose

NIST guidance recommends minimizing the use, collection, and retention of PII to what is necessary for mission or business purpose and periodically reviewing holdings. Encryption reduces disclosure risk but does not justify collecting unnecessary personal data.

Trap Retain all encrypted PII for possible future use

6 questions test this
PII confidentiality impact depends on context, not merely field names

Protection level considers identifiability, quantity, field sensitivity, context of use, obligations, access, and location. The same data element may create different harm when combined with other fields or used in a more sensitive context.

4 questions test this
Authorized data processing can still create privacy risk

Privacy risk includes problems individuals may experience from data processing even when confidentiality, integrity, and availability are not breached. A security risk assessment alone therefore cannot replace analysis of purpose, predictability, autonomy, and potential effects on individuals.

Trap Limit privacy analysis to unauthorized disclosure scenarios

3 questions test this
De-identification requires analysis of residual re-identification risk

Removing direct identifiers does not necessarily prevent records from being linked back to individuals through remaining attributes or external data. The architect selects de-identification techniques and release controls according to the intended use and credible re-identification threat.

Trap Declare data anonymous after masking names alone

2 questions test this
Select and document a lawful basis before processing personal data

GDPR processing is lawful only when an applicable Article 6 basis supports the purpose, such as consent, contract necessity, legal obligation, vital interests, public task, or a qualifying legitimate interest. The controller should determine and document that basis before processing and provide the required transparency to the data subject; a technical ability or business desire to use the data is not a lawful basis.

1 question tests this
Embed privacy in processing design and default settings

Privacy by design integrates appropriate technical and organizational safeguards when processing means are chosen and while processing occurs. Privacy by default limits the amount collected, extent of processing, retention, and accessibility to what each specified purpose requires without relying on the individual to tighten permissive settings.

2 questions test this

When consent is the selected GDPR basis, it must be freely given, specific, informed, and unambiguous, and the controller must retain evidence that it was obtained. Withdrawal must be as easy as giving consent and must stop future consent-based processing; consent is one possible lawful basis, not a universal prerequisite or permanent permission.

3 questions test this
Controller accountability continues when processors handle personal data

The controller determines the purposes and means of processing and must select processors that provide sufficient compliance guarantees. A written, binding processing agreement defines scope, duration, data, responsibilities, security, assistance, return or deletion, and documented instructions; delegating execution to the processor does not remove the controller's accountability to demonstrate compliant processing.

8 questions test this
Systems must make applicable data-subject rights executable

GDPR rights include information and access, rectification, erasure, restriction, portability, objection, and safeguards concerning automated decisions and profiling. The architecture must therefore support finding data by subject, supplying intelligible copies, correcting or deleting records, restricting downstream use, exporting portable data, propagating objections, and governing automated-decision workflows.

4 questions test this
Privacy breach notification follows risk, recipient, and role

Under GDPR, a processor notifies its controller without undue delay, and the controller notifies the supervisory authority without undue delay and, where feasible, within 72 hours unless the breach is unlikely to risk people's rights and freedoms. When high risk is likely, the controller also communicates with affected data subjects without undue delay unless a specified exception, such as effective protection that renders the data unintelligible, applies.

3 questions test this
A business impact analysis drives recovery requirements and priorities

The BIA determines process criticality and outage impacts, identifies supporting resource requirements, and establishes recovery priorities. A general risk assessment informs the BIA but does not replace its continuity-focused deliverables.

Trap Use vulnerability scan severity to set recovery order

7 questions test this
RTO limits service interruption while RPO limits tolerable data loss

The recovery time objective expresses how quickly a system or process must be restored after disruption. The recovery point objective expresses the acceptable age of restored data and therefore drives backup or replication frequency.

Trap Use RTO to specify the acceptable backup age

7 questions test this
Alternate capabilities must avoid the primary environment's credible common failures

Relocating processing or storage adds resilience only when the alternate capability has suitable capacity, dependencies, accessibility, and separation from threats affecting the primary site. Nominal redundancy inside one shared failure domain can still leave a single point of failure.

6 questions test this
Resilience includes operating under adversity and recovering essential functions

A resilient architecture anticipates that some preventive controls will fail and preserves essential operations, possibly in a degraded state, while enabling rapid recovery. Boundary protection alone is insufficient for attacks, environmental disruptions, and human errors that penetrate or bypass it.

5 questions test this
Testing, training, and exercises validate different aspects of contingency readiness

Testing validates recovery capabilities, training prepares personnel for their assigned duties, and exercises reveal coordination and planning gaps under scenarios. A tabletop discussion cannot provide the same assurance as executing technical recovery in an operationally representative environment.

Trap Treat a plan walkthrough as proof of technical failover

3 questions test this
Maximum tolerable downtime bounds recovery objectives

Maximum tolerable downtime is the total duration a mission or business process can be disrupted without significant harm. The system RTO plus the time needed to recover lost work must not exceed that limit.

5 questions test this
Resilience plans must be selected and coordinated by scope

A BCP sustains mission or business processes during and after disruption, while a COOP plan sustains an organization's mission-essential functions, typically at an alternate site. A cyber incident response plan addresses malicious cyber events, whereas a disaster recovery plan relocates information-system operations after a major facility disruption. An ISCP restores an individual system at its current or an alternate location and may operate alone or under the broader plans.

4 questions test this
Contingency plans must track material change

Contingency plans should be reviewed on an organization-defined schedule and whenever significant changes affect systems, interconnections, suppliers, facilities, personnel, responsibilities, or organizational requirements. Material changes may require updating the BIA, recovery priorities, procedures, contacts, agreements, and controlled plan copies so the documented strategy remains viable.

Contingency execution separates activation, recovery, and reconstitution

Activation and notification applies outage criteria, declares the plan, assesses the disruption, and mobilizes affected parties; recovery restores prioritized capabilities using the selected strategy. Reconstitution validates recovered data, functionality, and controls before resuming normal operations and formally deactivating the plan.

Industry-standard scope follows the protected data and systems that can affect it

For standards such as PCI DSS, scope includes the protected data environment and system components that store, process, transmit, or can affect the security of that data. Segmentation can reduce scope only when its effectiveness is established and maintained.

6 questions test this
Service-provider assurance evidence covers only its stated services and responsibilities

An attestation or assessment report must be checked for entity, service, location, period, exclusions, and customer responsibilities. The existence of current provider evidence does not establish that the customer's configuration and retained controls are compliant.

Trap Accept a provider attestation without reviewing its scope

6 questions test this
ISO/IEC 27001 certification is bounded by the certified ISMS scope

Certification provides independent confidence that the organization operates an ISMS conforming to the standard within the certificate's defined scope. It is not a blanket guarantee that every product, location, or information system is secure.

6 questions test this
A Protection Profile states reusable needs while a Security Target describes a specific evaluation target

Under Common Criteria, a Protection Profile expresses implementation-independent security requirements for a class of products. A Security Target identifies the particular target of evaluation and the functional and assurance requirements against which that target is evaluated.

Trap Use a Protection Profile as the evaluated product's specific claim

5 questions test this
Evaluation assurance measures confidence in evaluated claims rather than absolute security

A Common Criteria evaluation determines whether a defined target satisfies specified security properties at a stated assurance depth. A higher assurance package increases evaluation rigor but does not prove freedom from all vulnerabilities or suitability for every operating environment.

Trap Select the highest EAL as proof of universal product security

4 questions test this
PCI DSS establishes a payment-account protection baseline

PCI DSS defines baseline technical and operational requirements designed to protect payment account data, including cardholder data and sensitive authentication data. Its intended audience spans entities involved in payment-card processing, including merchants, processors, acquirers, issuers, and service providers, rather than only the organization that accepts the card at checkout.

Architect for Governance, Risk, and Compliance

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  • Asset inventory must include resources and dependencies that support mission outcomes
  • Business owners determine mission criticality and acceptable impact
  • Information owners govern classification and handling requirements
  • GRC roles must assign decision rights as well as responsibilities
  • Current and Target Profiles turn objectives into prioritized posture gaps
  • DPO applicability follows authority, monitoring, and sensitive-data scale
  • A continuous monitoring strategy is grounded in organizational risk tolerance
  • Monitoring metrics must support defined risk decisions
  • Risk reporting must be tailored to each decision-making tier
  • Automated monitoring complements rather than replaces procedural assessment
  • Monitoring findings must feed response and strategy updates
  • Vulnerability management coverage depends on an authoritative asset inventory
  • Vulnerability priority combines technical severity with exploit and mission context
  • Enterprise patch management ends with installation verification
  • Control assessments use examine, interview, and test methods to obtain objective evidence
  • A remediation plan tracks an unresolved weakness rather than closing it
  • Audit events must support reconstruction and individual accountability
  • Consistent authoritative time enables reliable event correlation
  • Audit records require protection from the subjects they monitor
  • Audit retention follows legal, regulatory, forensic, and business evidence needs
  • Forensic evidence requires preserved integrity and documented chain of custody
  • Audit responsibilities must separate incompatible duties
  • Assurance rigor must match impact and required confidence
  • Risk assessment preparation fixes purpose, scope, assumptions, sources, and method
  • A threat source is distinct from the event it may initiate
  • Predisposing conditions shape susceptibility even when they are not flaws
  • Likelihood reflects threat, susceptibility, and existing safeguards
  • Risk determination combines likelihood with the magnitude of impact
  • Risk treatment is selected against approved risk tolerance
  • Risk mitigation reduces likelihood, impact, or both through safeguards
  • Risk avoidance removes the activity or condition creating exposure
  • Risk transfer reallocates consequences but does not eliminate all risk
  • Risk acceptance requires an informed decision by authorized ownership
  • Risk treatment follows scenario evaluation rather than control availability
  • Control assessment informs but does not grant system authorization

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Security Architecture Modeling

Select a security architecture approach

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  • Security architecture shows how the design enforces security policy
  • Architecture scope and detail must fit the decision and stakeholder concern
  • Enterprise security architecture must align security structure to mission
  • Architecture detail should decompose without losing requirement traceability
  • A viewpoint defines how a stakeholder concern will be represented
  • NIST security engineering iterates among problem, solution, and trustworthiness contexts
  • Trustworthy design balances preemptive protection with reactive recovery
  • Cloud scope is defined by the cloud model rather than remote hosting alone
  • IaaS leaves the guest software stack under consumer control
  • Cloud service models shift the consumer-provider control boundary
  • Cloud reference architecture separates five actor roles
  • Cloud deployment and service models answer different architecture questions
  • Cloud architecture includes management and orchestration as well as service delivery
  • Network security architecture must model trust transitions, not only topology
  • SOA composes business capability from loosely coupled services
  • Semantic interoperability gives SOA services a common meaning for exchanged information
  • SOA governance keeps reusable services aligned with enterprise policy
  • Zero trust shifts protection from network location to individual resources
  • Zero trust access decisions must remain responsive to changing context
  • SOA does not require every service interaction to traverse an enterprise service bus
  • TOGAF ADM is an iterative method that must be tailored to the enterprise
  • TOGAF separates business, data, application, and technology concerns
  • TOGAF Phase A establishes security endorsement and sign-off
  • Requirements management remains central throughout the TOGAF ADM
  • TOGAF architecture detail follows the level of architecture
  • TOGAF security architecture addresses failure modes early
  • TOGAF separates migration planning from implementation conformance governance
  • SABSA derives security architecture from business outcomes
  • SABSA Business Attribute Profiles turn business expectations into measurable requirements
  • SABSA preserves two-way traceability from business mandate to security service
  • SABSA layers move from business context toward implementation detail
  • SABSA Manage and Measure feeds operational performance back into architecture
  • SABSA can supply business-risk depth inside TOGAF
  • SABSA prioritizes proportional responses to business risk and opportunity
  • A reference architecture establishes a reusable common model
  • Specific architecture views map activities to functional components
  • Security patterns are governed security knowledge assets
  • Reference content accelerates design but does not replace tailoring
  • Reference-architecture conformance does not prove control effectiveness
  • A reusable blueprint must state its assumptions and boundaries
  • Threat modeling is a scoped form of risk assessment
  • The four-question threat-modeling cycle is iterative
  • STRIDE systematically applies threat categories to modeled elements and flows
  • Spoofing, tampering, and repudiation target distinct security properties
  • Disclosure, denial of service, and elevation of privilege separate confidentiality, availability, and authorization threats
  • CVSS Base measures intrinsic vulnerability severity, not organizational risk
  • CVSS Threat and Environmental metrics contextualize Base severity
  • A CVSS score should be communicated with its vector and metric nomenclature
  • MITRE ATT&CK structures threat intelligence around observed adversary behavior
  • ATT&CK coverage should be prioritized to relevant threats rather than maximized indiscriminately
  • ATT&CK tactics are unordered while Cyber Kill Chain phases are ordered
  • Map relevant ATT&CK techniques to both prevention and detection coverage
  • CVSS Base combines exploitability with impacts to affected systems

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Verify and validate the security design

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Cheat sheet

Sharp facts the exam loves — scan these before test day.

Verification asks whether the design meets its specified requirements

Verification compares architecture or implementation evidence with defined requirements, constraints, and design criteria. It answers whether the system was built according to specification, not whether the selected specification satisfies the user's operational need.

Trap Acceptance testing focused on fitness for operational use

6 questions test this
Validation asks whether the resulting system is fit for intended use

Validation evaluates whether the system, in its operational context, satisfies stakeholder needs and intended use. A design can verify against an incomplete requirement set yet fail validation because it solves the wrong operational problem.

Trap A requirements trace showing every written requirement was implemented

5 questions test this
Acceptance testing decides readiness against agreed acceptance criteria

Functional acceptance testing demonstrates that required functions and security behavior satisfy agreed acceptance criteria in the intended context. Passing developer unit tests is supporting evidence, but it does not by itself demonstrate satisfaction of the complete acceptance criteria.

6 questions test this
Regression testing detects whether change broke previously satisfied behavior

After a modification, regression testing reruns relevant prior tests to find unintended effects in unchanged functions and controls. Testing only the newly changed feature can miss a security property that the change indirectly invalidated.

Trap Retesting only the new functionality introduced by the change

5 questions test this
Security functional tests must cover permitted and prohibited behavior

A useful functional test demonstrates both that authorized operations succeed and that disallowed operations are prevented. Positive-only testing can verify availability of a feature while leaving authorization failure paths untested.

3 questions test this
Verification depth should be proportional to risk and criticality

Test scope, depth, detail, and rigor should provide the confidence required for the most significant adverse effect that can occur and the applicable assurance needs. Applying the same shallow test set to every component can waste effort on low-consequence elements and under-test elements whose failure has severe consequences.

3 questions test this
Fuzz testing targets failures caused by unexpected input

Fuzzing repeatedly supplies malformed, unexpected, or generated inputs and monitors for crashes, hangs, memory faults, and other anomalous behavior. It complements specification-based tests by exploring cases developers did not enumerate, but it does not establish complete correctness.

3 questions test this
Penetration testing demonstrates selected exploitable attack paths

Penetration testing attempts to exploit vulnerabilities in a defined scope to show how controls fail together and what access or impact is achievable. A successful test provides strong evidence for the demonstrated path, while an unsuccessful test does not prove that no other path exists.

Trap Treating failure to exploit during a time-boxed test as proof of absence

5 questions test this
An attack vector combines a source, a vulnerable processor, and malicious content

NIST defines an attack vector as a segment of the pathway an attack uses to access a vulnerability. Characterize each vector by the source of malicious content, the potentially vulnerable processor, and the nature of the malicious content so reviewers can identify where that segment can be detected or stopped.

Trap An attacker profile and motive

7 questions test this
Threat likelihood and impact must be estimated separately

Likelihood addresses the possibility that a threat event will occur and result in adverse impact, while impact addresses the magnitude of harm to operations, assets, people, or objectives. A rare catastrophic scenario and a frequent minor scenario therefore require distinct treatment even if a simple score ranks them similarly.

7 questions test this
Predisposing conditions and vulnerabilities shape scenario likelihood

A threat source does not create the same risk in every architecture; exposure, susceptibility, existing controls, and exploitable weaknesses affect whether its event can succeed. Verification should test the assumptions used to estimate those conditions rather than treating likelihood as an adversary attribute alone.

5 questions test this
Gap analysis compares corresponding baseline and target elements

A design gap is established by comparing required target capability with the existing or proposed implementation and evidence. The analysis distinguishes elements to carry forward from those to add, remove, or replace, avoiding a generic findings list with no target-state trace.

Trap Counting scanner findings without mapping them to target requirements

4 questions test this
Threat-model results should focus verification on credible failure paths

Threat scenarios, affected assets, vectors, preconditions, and expected consequences provide inputs for selecting abuse cases and assurance activities. This trace lets reviewers test whether proposed controls interrupt the modeled path instead of testing controls in isolation.

3 questions test this
Material design or threat changes require threat-model revalidation

A threat model is valid only for its documented system boundary, assumptions, technology, and threat context. New trust relationships, data flows, deployment environments, adversary behavior, or mitigations can invalidate prior conclusions and call for reassessing the affected conclusions.

Trap Reusing the approved threat model unchanged for every later release

6 questions test this
A mitigation should measurably alter a modeled risk scenario

A proposed safeguard is relevant when it reduces the probability of successful exploitation, limits the resulting harm, improves detection and response, or removes a required precondition. Merely associating a control family with the affected asset does not demonstrate treatment effectiveness.

8 questions test this
A compensating control must satisfy the original security intent

When the preferred control is infeasible, a compensating control should provide comparable protection for the same requirement and threat, within the actual environment. Cost or convenience alone does not establish equivalence; the rationale and remaining exposure require evidence and approval.

Trap Any cheaper control from the same control family

5 questions test this
Alternative solutions should be compared across effectiveness and constraints

A trade study compares how candidate designs satisfy security requirements while accounting for cost, performance, interoperability, usability, lifecycle, and operational constraints. Selecting the technically strongest control without considering mission consequences can produce a design that fails validation.

9 questions test this
Defense in depth uses complementary barriers against common failure paths

Layered controls are useful when they act at different points or with different failure modes in the threat scenario. Duplicating the same mechanism at several locations can preserve a common-mode weakness and should not be assumed to provide independent assurance.

Trap Multiple copies of one control with the same dependency and failure mode

7 questions test this
Residual risk remains after controls and requires explicit disposition

Verification of a mitigation does not prove that the risk has been eliminated. The post-treatment likelihood, impact, assumptions, and uncertainty must be recorded so the authorized decision maker can accept the residual exposure or require further treatment.

Trap Closing the risk automatically when its planned control passes a test

5 questions test this
A tabletop exercise validates plans and decisions through facilitated discussion

A tabletop presents a scenario to participants who discuss responsibilities, coordination, decisions, and expected actions. It is well suited to exposing unclear authorities and procedural gaps but does not demonstrate that production technology can execute the response under load.

Trap Treating successful discussion as proof of technical failover capacity

8 questions test this
Modeling and simulation exercise behavior without requiring a live cutover

A simulation represents selected system or operational behavior in a controlled environment so scenarios and assumptions can be explored without production consequences. Its assurance is limited by model fidelity, input quality, and the differences between simulated and operational conditions.

4 questions test this
Manual functional review can examine logic that automated tests do not express

A reviewer can trace use cases, state transitions, trust decisions, and exception paths against requirements and threat scenarios before or without executing the implementation. This method is especially useful for architecture logic and missing behavior, but it cannot by itself prove runtime enforcement.

Trap Using document review as the sole evidence that a runtime control works

3 questions test this
Peer review uses relevant expertise to challenge design assumptions

Qualified peers can identify omitted viewpoints, inconsistent requirements, unsafe assumptions, and trade-offs that the original design team normalized. Review effectiveness depends on reviewer competence, scope, and access to the rationale and evidence, not merely attendance by another architect.

5 questions test this
Assessment independence increases confidence in objective findings

An assessor independent of the design and implementation decisions is less exposed to self-review bias and conflicting incentives. Independence does not replace technical competence or adequate evidence, so an external label alone is not sufficient assurance.

Trap Choosing an external assessor solely because third-party status guarantees quality

9 questions test this
Strong assurance combines documentary, testimonial, and test evidence

Assessment methods commonly examine artifacts, interview responsible people, and test mechanisms or processes. Corroborating these sources distinguishes a documented design, an understood practice, and an operating control instead of inferring all three from one source.

5 questions test this
Common Criteria assurance stays within the evaluated claims and scope

A Common Criteria result provides assurance only for the defined Target of Evaluation and the security claims and properties specified by its Security Target or claimed Protection Profile, as examined by the applicable evaluation methods and activities. It does not provide general assurance for unevaluated functions, configurations, or operating conditions.

Manual code review is strongest where security depends on context and intent

Human review can reason about authorization logic, workflow abuse, trust assumptions, misuse of security functions, and requirement omissions that pattern-based tools may not understand. It is resource intensive, so threat models and criticality should focus review on high-risk code and interfaces.

6 questions test this
Static analysis inspects source or compiled code without running it

Static analyzers examine code structure and data or control flows to identify weakness patterns before or independently of execution. They can cover large codebases consistently but require triage because findings can include false positives and context-dependent results.

Trap Dynamic analysis of application responses during execution

7 questions test this
Dynamic analysis probes behavior in an executing system

Dynamic analysis supplies inputs to a running application and observes its behavior and responses. It can reveal runtime and configuration-dependent flaws but sees only the paths, states, and interfaces reached during testing.

Trap Assuming a clean dynamic scan proves unexecuted paths are secure

8 questions test this
Software composition analysis evaluates included third-party components

SCA inventories libraries and other dependencies so teams can assess known vulnerabilities, versions, provenance, and other supply-chain concerns. It does not determine whether the organization's own business logic correctly enforces security requirements.

Trap Using SCA as a replacement for reviewing first-party authorization code

6 questions test this
Third-party component assurance depends on its intended use

The SSDF calls for reviewing third-party components in the context of their expected use and repeating evaluation when that use changes substantially. A component acceptable in an isolated tool may carry different risk when placed on a critical trust boundary.

4 questions test this
Threat models should direct code review and analysis toward critical paths

Mapped assets, trust boundaries, abuse cases, and attack paths identify where manual review, static analysis, dynamic analysis, fuzzing, and penetration testing provide the most value. Tool coverage metrics alone should not determine security test priorities.

6 questions test this
Code-analysis findings require triage, remediation, and verification

Developer verification records discovered issues, determines their validity and priority, routes remediation into the development workflow, and verifies the fix. Counting tool alerts without disposition and regression evidence is not a completed review process.

Trap Using the raw scanner report as final assurance evidence

4 questions test this
Secure code review verifies control presence, operation, and placement

Secure code review audits application source to verify that security and logical controls are present, operate as intended, and are invoked in the right places. Its objective is to discover security defects and potentially identify solutions.

Trap Successful execution of each control in isolation proves that the control is invoked at every required point.

4 questions test this

Infrastructure and System Security Architecture

Identify Infrastructure and System Security Requirements

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  • The deployment model determines control ownership and visibility
  • Hybrid designs require controls that remain coherent across boundaries
  • A private cloud is distinguished by exclusive use, not by location
  • Public cloud selection must address displaced data and services
  • Workload constraints should drive placement before technology preference
  • OT security requirements must preserve safety and reliability
  • Real-time OT behavior constrains inline security controls
  • Unsupported OT components require compensating protection
  • Passive discovery is preferred when active probing could disrupt OT
  • IT-to-OT communication must use explicit controlled conduits
  • Concentric physical zones increase protection around critical assets
  • Physical access must be authorized, monitored, and attributable
  • Fire protection must balance life safety and equipment hazards
  • Critical utilities require resilient paths without common failure points
  • Site selection must account for correlated environmental hazards
  • Monitoring frequency and scope must follow risk
  • Asset and dependency knowledge is prerequisite to monitoring coverage
  • A trusted common time source enables event correlation
  • Monitoring records must be protected from alteration and loss
  • Monitoring must produce actionable risk information
  • Data sensitivity and use cases drive cryptographic requirements
  • Cryptography complements rather than replaces access control
  • Cryptographic requirements must include algorithm agility
  • Key ownership, custody, recovery, and residency must be explicit requirements
  • Cryptographic performance and availability are design constraints
  • A Requirements Traceability Matrix links requirements to implementation and evidence
  • Security architecture documentation must record boundaries and rationale
  • Secure development practices must be integrated into the chosen SDLC
  • Third-party software requirements must cover provenance and vulnerability response
  • Application security requirements need objective acceptance criteria

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Architect Infrastructure and System Security

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  • Physical defense should combine deterrence, detection, delay, and response
  • Physical access fail states must preserve life safety
  • The hypervisor is a high-value isolation boundary
  • Containers share a host kernel and are not equivalent to virtual-machine isolation
  • Firmware resilience requires protection, detection, and recovery
  • Hardware-rooted trust can anchor higher-layer assurance
  • Platform hardening removes unnecessary functionality before exposure
  • Firewalls mediate traffic between differing security postures
  • Segmentation limits reachability and lateral movement
  • A WAF applies application-aware policy to HTTP traffic
  • A VPN protects a path but does not establish endpoint trust
  • IPsec ESP is selected when payload confidentiality is required
  • NAC makes network admission conditional on identity and posture
  • Network management paths should be isolated from user traffic
  • DNSSEC protects DNS data authenticity and integrity, not confidentiality
  • Trusted time distribution underpins logs and time-sensitive controls
  • Wireless trust boundaries separate access profiles and constrain wired reachability
  • Public services belong in a controlled perimeter network
  • A software-defined perimeter hides resources until access is authorized
  • NTP distributes time, while NTS authenticates its synchronization
  • IPsec mode follows the protected path and policy selectors
  • Zero trust separates resource-access decisions from enforcement
  • The CISA ZTMM aligns five pillars through three cross-cutting capabilities
  • The storage access model shapes the security boundary
  • Storage management interfaces require isolation from data access
  • Shared storage requires isolation between workloads and tenants
  • Backup security includes restoration assurance
  • Removable media controls span authorization through sanitization
  • Repository encryption is strongest when keys are separately controlled
  • Data masking substitutes values while preserving useful structure
  • Redaction removes sensitive content from a released representation
  • Repository access should be granted at the narrowest practical scope
  • Cloud service models shift the customer-provider control boundary
  • IaaS leaves guest systems and workloads under customer control
  • PaaS places applications and data above a provider-managed platform
  • SaaS reduces platform control but retains governance of service use
  • Deployment model and service model answer different questions
  • Cloud contracts must enable assurance and secure exit
  • The cloud control plane is a critical privileged boundary
  • OT zones should reflect process function and consequence
  • Application allowlisting fits stable, predictable OT workloads
  • OT patching must account for operational validation and maintenance windows
  • IoT gateways can enforce controls that constrained devices cannot
  • EDR combines endpoint telemetry with investigation and response
  • BYOD architecture must separate enterprise data from personal control
  • Endpoint authorization should incorporate current device posture
  • SCADA provides centralized supervision of dispersed ICS assets
  • Managed mobile endpoints need lifecycle-wide enterprise enforcement
  • HIPS attempts to block attacks detected on its host
  • S/MIME protection travels with a message beyond transport hops
  • VoIP security must address signaling and media separately
  • Unified communications controls must preserve availability and quality
  • Federation replaces local credential handling with an external trust dependency
  • SFTP provides file transfer through SSH rather than FTP over TLS
  • A third-party VPN should expose only approved integration paths
  • Every third-party integration needs a revocation and offboarding path
  • Infrastructure and content monitoring answer different questions
  • DLP applies data-handling policy across repositories, endpoints, and channels
  • Encrypted-traffic inspection creates privacy and trust trade-offs
  • A SIEM centralizes and correlates events but is not the source control
  • Content monitoring must be limited to authorized purposes
  • Control-plane activity requires monitoring distinct from workload events
  • Behavioral baselines give anomaly detection operational context
  • Social-media monitoring is governed as third-party platform collection
  • Incident communications require a path independent of the affected environment
  • Out-of-band management separates recovery access from the production data plane
  • BC/DR communications must avoid common dependencies
  • Forward and reverse proxies protect different sides of a connection
  • Server-side services must treat web clients as untrusted
  • Controls must be allocated to the component that can enforce them
  • A compensating control must meet the original control intent
  • An air gap reduces network paths but does not eliminate all transfer paths

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Architect Infrastructure and System Cryptographic Solutions

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Cheat sheet

Sharp facts the exam loves — scan these before test day.

The cryptographic mechanism must match the required security service

Select encryption for confidentiality, a MAC for symmetric integrity and source authentication, and digital signatures when public verification and signer evidence are required. No single primitive automatically supplies every security property.

5 questions test this
Symmetric and asymmetric cryptography solve different architectural problems

Symmetric algorithms efficiently protect bulk data but require communicating parties to share secret keying material. Asymmetric techniques support signatures or key establishment without a pre-shared pairwise secret but impose different trust and computational costs.

11 questions test this
A cryptographic hash does not provide confidentiality

A hash produces a fixed-length digest intended to make reversal and collisions infeasible; it does not use a decryption key to recover plaintext. Use it for integrity constructions and fingerprints, not to hide predictable sensitive values by itself.

9 questions test this
Cryptographic module validation applies to a defined module boundary

FIPS 140-3 validation provides assurance about a cryptographic module's specified implementation and boundary. It does not certify the security of the entire application, key-management process, protocol design, or surrounding system.

7 questions test this
Implementation attacks can defeat sound algorithms

Threat models should include side channels, weak randomness, protocol misuse, key exposure, fault attacks, and insecure error handling in addition to mathematical attacks. Selecting an approved algorithm does not compensate for an implementation that leaks keys.

7 questions test this
Cryptographic lifecycle planning includes standards transition

Inventory algorithms, keys, certificates, protocols, dependencies, and protected-data lifetimes so systems can migrate before current protection becomes inadequate. Long-lived data may require transition earlier than short-lived data because attackers can retain ciphertext for later decryption.

5 questions test this
The FIPS 140-3 level must fit the application and environment

FIPS 140-3 defines four increasing qualitative module-security levels, not one universal assurance target. Select a validated module level whose protections fit the application's security requirements, data sensitivity, operating environment, and exposure rather than choosing a level solely because it is higher.

7 questions test this
At-rest encryption primarily protects stored representations

Disk, volume, file, object, or database encryption can protect data when storage media or copies are obtained without authorization. It does not protect plaintext after an authorized process has unlocked and read the data.

3 questions test this
Transit protection should authenticate endpoints as well as encrypt traffic

Use a protocol such as properly authenticated TLS or IPsec when data needs confidentiality and integrity over an untrusted path. Encryption without peer authentication can establish a protected channel to an attacker.

5 questions test this
In-use protection narrows plaintext exposure during computation

Trusted execution environments and secure enclaves can isolate code and data while they are processed and can support attestation of execution state. They reduce exposure to other platform layers but still depend on correct code, trusted roots, and sound key release policy.

6 questions test this

With link encryption, each network hop may decrypt and re-encrypt data, so intermediaries can see plaintext. End-to-end encryption keeps content protected between communicating endpoints, although intermediaries may still observe routing metadata.

Trap Hop-by-hop link encryption

6 questions test this
Authenticated encryption protects confidentiality and detects modification

Select an approved authenticated-encryption construction when ciphertext confidentiality and integrity are both required. Encryption without an integrity mechanism can permit undetected manipulation even when plaintext remains unreadable.

6 questions test this
Envelope encryption separates data keys from key-encryption keys

Encrypt data with a data-encryption key and protect that key under a separately managed key-encryption key. This supports scalable data protection and centralized rotation of the wrapping layer without using one long-term key directly for all bulk data.

6 questions test this
Digital signatures authenticate data but do not conceal it

A valid signature can provide integrity, origin evidence, and public verification according to the certificate and key trust model. Encrypt separately when the signed content also requires confidentiality.

6 questions test this
TLS 1.3 forward secrecy does not make 0-RTT replay-safe

TLS 1.3 (EC)DHE key exchanges provide forward secrecy, while PSK-only use can forfeit it. Its 0-RTT mode reduces connection latency but lacks inherent replay protection, so allow early data only for operations safe to replay and require application-level duplicate handling where applicable.

Key generation requires approved unpredictable randomness

Generate keys with an approved random bit generator and enough entropy for the intended algorithm and strength. A long key produced from predictable input remains weak regardless of its nominal bit length.

5 questions test this
Key agreement lets parties derive a shared secret

In key agreement, both parties contribute information used to derive keying material rather than one party selecting and sending the final secret key. Bare Diffie-Hellman needs authentication from the surrounding protocol to resist man-in-the-middle attacks.

Trap Unauthenticated Diffie-Hellman

7 questions test this
Key transport securely delivers a key selected by one party

In key transport, one party generates or obtains keying material and protects it for delivery to another party. This differs from key agreement, in which the resulting shared secret is derived from contributions by both sides.

7 questions test this
Key distribution must protect both key secrecy and source authenticity

Secret and private keying material needs confidentiality during distribution, while all key associations need integrity and authentic binding to the intended party and purpose. A confidential channel to an unauthenticated recipient can deliver a key securely to the wrong party.

6 questions test this
A cryptoperiod limits how long a key is authorized for use

Set cryptoperiods according to algorithm strength, key type, data volume, exposure, operational environment, and consequences of compromise. Rotation schedules should follow risk and purpose rather than use one arbitrary interval for every key.

7 questions test this
Keys should be separated by cryptographic purpose

Do not use one key pair interchangeably for signing, encryption, authentication, and key establishment unless the approved scheme explicitly permits the combination. Purpose separation limits compromise impact and supports distinct lifecycle treatment.

7 questions test this
A certificate binds a public key to a named subject under an issuer's policy

A relying party must validate the certification path, validity period, intended key use, name, and revocation status before relying on the binding. The certificate does not protect the subject's private key from compromise.

4 questions test this
An HSM keeps sensitive key operations inside a protected boundary

Use a hardware security module when keys must be generated, stored, and used under tamper-resistant controls with tightly governed interfaces. An HSM reduces key exposure but does not decide whether callers are properly authorized unless the surrounding design enforces that policy.

5 questions test this
Key recovery is appropriate for decryption keys but hazardous for signing keys

Archive or escrow decryption keys when authorized recovery of protected data is a business requirement. Private signature keys generally should not be escrowed because another holder could create signatures as the subscriber and undermine signer accountability.

Trap Signature-key escrow

5 questions test this
Key backup trades recovery availability against additional exposure

Protect backup key copies at least as strongly as operational copies, control their restoration, and inventory their locations. Extra copies can prevent permanent data loss but also enlarge the set of targets that can compromise protected data.

8 questions test this
Certificate revocation stops future reliance but does not erase past exposure

Publish and check revocation status promptly when a private key or binding is no longer trustworthy. Revocation does not recover a compromised private key, decrypt previously captured ciphertext, or invalidate every historical signature automatically.

8 questions test this
Key compromise response requires more than scheduled rotation

Stop use, revoke or distrust affected credentials, generate replacement keys, distribute new trust, assess exposed data, and re-protect information where required. Waiting for the normal cryptoperiod to expire leaves a known compromised key active.

8 questions test this
Cryptographic erasure renders encrypted data inaccessible by destroying keys

Crypto erase is effective only when strong encryption covered the target data and all usable copies of the relevant keys can be destroyed. Surviving key backups or plaintext copies defeat the sanitization claim.

5 questions test this
Split knowledge prevents one custodian from knowing the complete secret

Divide sensitive key material or activation information so no single participant possesses the whole value. Merely requiring two approvals while one administrator still knows and can copy the full key is dual authorization, not split knowledge.

6 questions test this
Dual control requires two authorized actors for a sensitive key operation

Use dual control when generation, activation, recovery, export, or destruction must not be completed by one person acting alone. It can be combined with split knowledge, but the two controls address action authority and secret possession differently.

11 questions test this

Identity and Access Management (IAM) Architecture

Architect the identity lifecycle

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  • Identity proofing resolves, validates, and verifies a claimed identity
  • Select identity proofing rigor from the impact of an enrollment error
  • Identity proofing and authentication establish different assurances
  • Equivalent proofing paths should preserve assurance while improving access
  • Successful proofing must end in a protected subscriber-account binding
  • Remote proofing must detect injected and forged media
  • Identity assurance levels increase evidence and process rigor
  • Proofing exceptions require governed evidence and redress
  • Use an immutable internal identifier as the durable identity join key
  • Retired identifiers should not be reassigned where history must remain attributable
  • Identifier uniqueness is required within every relying collision domain
  • Services, processes, devices, and components need attributable identities
  • Use pairwise pseudonymous identifiers when cross-service correlation is unnecessary
  • Authoritative business events should drive identity-state changes
  • Birthright access should be limited to an approved role baseline
  • Mover workflows must remove obsolete access as well as add new access
  • Leaver access must be disabled at the risk-defined termination boundary
  • Provisioning requires reconciliation, not only event delivery
  • Each identity attribute needs a designated authoritative source
  • A directory supplies identity data but need not decide access policy
  • External identities require sponsorship and lifecycle accountability
  • Workload identities need machine-oriented lifecycle controls
  • Lifecycle state changes should preserve attribution history

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Architect identity authentication

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Cheat sheet

Sharp facts the exam loves — scan these before test day.

Multifactor authentication combines independent factor categories

Two secrets that are both known, or two devices that are both possessed, do not become multifactor merely because two checks occur. MFA requires evidence from distinct categories such as knowledge, possession, and inherence.

Trap Counting a password and a security question as two factors

3 questions test this
Authentication assurance should match the impact of account compromise

The architecture should select an authentication assurance level from transaction and system risk, then choose authenticators and protocols that satisfy it. Identity proofing level and authentication level address different risks and need not be numerically identical.

Trap Automatically setting authentication assurance equal to identity assurance

9 questions test this
Phishing resistance requires cryptographic binding to the legitimate verifier

An authenticator is phishing-resistant when its output cannot be replayed to an impostor verifier, commonly through verifier-name binding or cryptographic binding to an authenticated protected channel. Manually entered one-time passwords remain phishable even though they resist simple replay.

Trap Treating any time-limited one-time password as phishing-resistant

3 questions test this
Risk-based elevation should occur before the higher-risk action

A session may begin at lower assurance and require step-up authentication when context or a requested operation raises risk. Elevation should produce assurance sufficient for the protected action and should not make the stronger state persist beyond its justified lifetime.

Trap Relying on post-transaction anomaly review instead of pre-action step-up

5 questions test this
Biometrics should activate an authenticator rather than stand alone remotely

NIST digital identity guidance treats a biometric characteristic as a factor used with a physical authenticator, not as an authenticator by itself. This limits replay and substitution risk while providing a local inherence check.

Trap Using a remotely submitted face image as the sole authenticator

4 questions test this
Single-factor authentication is limited to basic assurance

Single-factor authentication can satisfy AAL1 and is an architectural option only where basic confidence is adequate. When risk requires AAL2 or AAL3, the architect must select an eligible MFA process; fraud indicators or contextual checks can trigger added controls but do not raise the AAL or substitute for an authentication factor.

4 questions test this
AAL3 requires hardware-protected non-exportable authentication keys

AAL3 requires phishing-resistant public-key authentication with a non-exportable private key held in an isolated hardware environment; syncable authenticators therefore cannot satisfy AAL3. Ordinary AAL2 MFA can use exportable authenticators and need only offer, rather than universally require, a phishing-resistant option.

4 questions test this
Authentication intent requires an explicit claimant action

Authentication intent requires the claimant to respond explicitly to each authentication or reauthentication request, such as by entering an output, pressing a button, or reinserting an authenticator. Passive biometric capture or an authenticator response that endpoint malware can trigger without the claimant's knowledge does not establish intent.

Authenticator binding must use an authenticated protected process

Adding a new authenticator changes who can act as the subscriber, so binding requires authentication at an assurance appropriate to the account and notification of the change. An active session alone may be insufficient if it was established at lower assurance.

Trap Allowing any logged-in session to enroll an unrestricted new authenticator

5 questions test this
Account recovery must be engineered as an alternate authentication path

Recovery can bypass the primary authenticator, so its evidence, delay, notification, and fraud controls must match the resulting risk. Strong daily authentication is defeated by weak knowledge-based reset questions.

Trap Using easily researched personal questions to recover a high-assurance account

6 questions test this
Compromise response revokes the affected authenticator binding

When an authenticator is lost, stolen, or compromised, the credential service provider should promptly invalidate its binding and establish a replacement through an approved process. Changing an account label or directory password does not revoke an independent token or certificate.

Trap Renaming the account while leaving the compromised certificate valid

6 questions test this
Password systems should store salted, computationally resistant verifiers

Verifiers should store passwords in a form resistant to offline guessing, using salts and a suitable password hashing scheme, rather than reversible encryption or plaintext. Transport protection does not mitigate theft of a weak verifier database.

Trap Encrypting all passwords under one recoverable database key

4 questions test this
Online guessing defenses must rate-limit failed authentication attempts

Authentication services should throttle or otherwise limit consecutive failed attempts against an account or authenticator. Password complexity alone does not control high-volume online guessing, while permanent lockout can create a denial-of-service path.

Trap Using irreversible account lockout as the primary guessing defense

1 question tests this
Authenticated sessions require protected bindings and bounded lifetimes

A session inherits no higher assurance than its authentication event and maintains continuity through a protected session secret established at authentication. Overall and inactivity limits must drive reauthentication or termination, while logout or expiry invalidates the binding; successful reauthentication resets the applicable limits.

10 questions test this
Kerberos provides trusted-third-party, ticket-based authentication

Kerberos uses a key distribution center to issue a ticket-granting ticket and service tickets, allowing a client and service to authenticate without sending the user's password to each service. Its design depends on protected keys and sufficiently synchronized clocks.

Trap Selecting LDAP merely because directory entries contain user accounts

4 questions test this
RADIUS centralizes authentication and authorization for network access

A network access server can send a RADIUS Access-Request to a centralized server and receive accept, reject, challenge, and authorization attributes. RADIUS accounting is a related protocol function, but base RADIUS does not provide end-to-end protection for every attribute.

Trap Choosing Kerberos as the native AAA protocol for dial-in or network access servers

3 questions test this
SAML carries signed security assertions between federation parties

SAML is suited to browser-based enterprise federation in which an identity provider asserts authentication and attributes to a service provider. The assertion must be validated for issuer, signature, audience, conditions, and replay constraints rather than trusted because it is XML.

Trap Using OAuth access tokens as a direct replacement for SAML authentication assertions

4 questions test this
OAuth delegates resource access rather than defining user authentication

OAuth lets a client obtain limited access to a protected resource on behalf of a resource owner or itself without receiving the owner's credentials. Treating a bare OAuth authorization response as proof of user identity creates an authentication design gap.

Trap Assuming possession of any OAuth access token proves the user's identity to the client

4 questions test this
LDAP retrieves directory information while XACML expresses access policy

LDAP defines operations for accessing and modifying distributed directory entries; XACML defines an attribute-based policy language and request-response model for authorization decisions. Either may support an access-control architecture, but they are not interchangeable authentication protocols.

Trap Selecting LDAP as the policy language for centralized authorization decisions

5 questions test this
OAuth grant selection follows the authorizing actor

Use an authorization-code pattern when a client needs delegated access approved by a resource owner; the authorization server mediates that approval without exposing the owner's credentials to the client. Use client credentials only for a confidential client acting on its own resources or under prearranged authority, because client authentication itself is then the grant.

Kerberos cross-realm access inherits its KDC trust path

Cross-realm Kerberos depends on inter-realm keys and every permitted realm in the transited authentication path, so services should accept only paths allowed by policy. KDC availability is required to issue new tickets, and compromise of a realm's KDC compromises authentication for its registered principals and relying services.

3 questions test this
Federation requires explicit technical and governance trust

A relying party should trust assertions only from approved identity providers under defined agreements covering assurance, attributes, keys, incident handling, and lifecycle duties. Protocol interoperability alone does not establish organizational trust.

Trap Accepting assertions from any provider that implements the same federation protocol

4 questions test this
Federation assertions must be bound to their intended relying party

Audience and recipient restrictions prevent an assertion issued for one relying party from being accepted by another. Signature validation proves integrity and issuer control but does not by itself establish that the current recipient is authorized to consume it.

Trap Accepting any correctly signed assertion from a trusted issuer

1 question tests this
Short assertion validity and replay defenses limit federation abuse

Assertions should carry bounded validity and transaction protections appropriate to their federation assurance level. A stolen bearer assertion can be reused within its accepted scope unless nonce, audience, replay detection, or holder-of-key controls constrain it.

Trap Relying on transport encryption alone after a bearer assertion is stolen

3 questions test this
Federation should release only attributes required by the relying party

The identity provider and relying party should agree on the minimum attributes and purposes needed for the transaction. Sending a complete enterprise profile increases privacy and breach impact without increasing authentication assurance.

Trap Replicating the full directory record to simplify relying-party integration

5 questions test this
Federation trades local credential control for shared identity trust

Federation reduces duplicate credentials and centralizes authentication, but creates dependency on the identity provider's availability, assurance, and incident response. A stand-alone identity store may be justified where isolation or autonomy outweighs those operational benefits.

Trap Assuming federation always reduces risk because it reduces password stores

3 questions test this
Federation assurance strengthens assertion presentation independently

FAL1 permits bearer assertions and flexible trust and key establishment, while FAL2 remains bearer-based but requires pre-established trust and strong assertion-injection protection in an RP-initiated transaction. FAL3 requires the relying party to verify subscriber control of a holder-of-key or bound authenticator in addition to validating the assertion, protecting even against a compromised identity provider.

3 questions test this

Before associating a new federated identifier with a local account, the relying party must use sufficient asserted attributes to resolve the subscriber uniquely and prevent association with another person's account. Linking an additional identifier should occur only in an authenticated session established through an existing identifier, not solely from a mutable attribute such as an email address.

5 questions test this

Architect identity authorization

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  • Least privilege limits capability, scope, and duration
  • Separation of duties prevents one principal from completing a critical process alone
  • Discretionary and mandatory controls differ in who governs access
  • Non-interactive access requires explicit workload authorization
  • Authorization should deny requests not affirmatively allowed
  • RBAC maps stable job functions to permissions
  • ABAC evaluates subject, object, action, and environmental attributes
  • Rule-based control evaluates global conditions rather than job membership
  • Capability tokens should be constrained by scope, audience, and lifetime
  • Authorization architecture must align physical, logical, and administrative controls
  • Single sign-on centralizes authentication without granting universal access
  • Certificate authentication must be mapped to local authorization
  • Authorization controls serve distinct physical, logical, and administrative planes
  • ABAC separates policy administration, information, decision, and enforcement
  • Access issuance requires approval from an accountable authority
  • Entitlement reviews should be risk-based and event-triggered
  • Suspension preserves a reversible state while revocation withdraws authorization
  • Security-group membership is an entitlement requiring governance
  • Digital rights management extends policy to protected content usage
  • Administrators should use separate privileged and routine identities
  • Just-in-time elevation reduces standing administrative privilege
  • PAM should broker privileged credentials and rotate reusable secrets
  • Privileged-session monitoring must preserve actor and approval context
  • Emergency access must be usable, exceptional, and independently reviewed

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Architect identity accounting

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  • Audit events should be selected from accountability, detection, and forensic use cases
  • An audit record needs enough context to reconstruct the event
  • IAM control-plane changes are high-value audit events
  • Consistent time sources are required for cross-system reconstruction
  • Correlation identifiers connect identity activity across system boundaries
  • Central collection should preserve original event provenance
  • Log transport must address confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and delivery failure
  • Log administrators should not control the activities they audit
  • Audit capacity exhaustion requires an explicit fail-safe response
  • Logs should capture evidence without collecting unnecessary secrets
  • Alerts should prioritize high-impact identity and privilege events
  • Every material audit alert needs an owned response path
  • IAM analysis should correlate control-plane and resource activity
  • Audit reporting should measure control outcomes and unresolved exceptions
  • FISMA architecture uses continuous monitoring to maintain risk visibility
  • Log retention should reconcile investigation, legal, regulatory, and privacy needs
  • Audit evidence needs tamper protection and controlled disposition
  • PCI DSS requires individual accountability and protected audit trails around cardholder data
  • HIPAA audit controls must record and examine activity involving electronic protected health information
  • GDPR logging must balance accountability with data minimization and storage limitation

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